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>Neither country is better or worse because of that. The article doesn't bother to explain the ramifications. This is not entirely true [0]. The money-multipli
by 24gttghh 8y ago
>Neither country is better or worse because of that. The article doesn't bother to explain the ramifications.
This is not entirely true [0]. The money-multiplier effect would mean the bank in Germany then has something like ~$900 more dollars (converted to Euro's of course) that it could loan out. I'm not sure on their exact Reserve Requirement, but it appears to be less than 10%. Apparently the UK doesn't have much of a Reserve Requirement though, so perhaps they would not necessarily lose out as much as Germany would gain in this scenario.
[0]https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fractional-reserve_banking#Money_multiplier https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fractional-reserve_banking#Mon...
- cm2187 8y agoThe UK has significant liquidity requirement.
- soVeryTired 8y agoReserve requirements don't really control lending in the West anymore. The main determinant of whether a bank will issue a loan is whether it thinks the loan will be profitable. The main constraint on bank lending is capital reqirements - i.e. the ratio of the bank's liabilities to its assets. The 'money multiplier' might have been a decent description of the banking system 100 years ago, but it's basically a myth these days.