3 ms·

Are you really comparing "earning over $x in a year" with "guilty of a specific crime"?

• happytoexplain 8y ago
  In the sense that, given the power to define how the law treats them in each of their relevant contexts (taxation and legal punishment), they would both have extremely strong motivations to favor their own wellbeing to the exclusion of society as a whole. But isn't that obviously the analogy being drawn? Your phrasing makes it sound like the parent comment was saying rich people should generally be treated like criminals, which just sounds like a purposeful misinterpretation (no offense if you were genuinely unsure what the parent comment was saying).