I'm curious to how US economists (or perhaps reporters) are able to ignore most of western-Europe when talking about labour costs. Shouldn't these countries be

I'm curious to how US economists (or perhaps reporters) are able to ignore most of western-Europe when talking about labour costs. Shouldn't these countries be head deep in unemployment for the last 60 years or so if this was strictly true? What also always seem to go unmentioned is the wage share. Surely it can go up, not just down?