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> Countries that have previously held referendums on joining the EU have done so after negotiations were 100% completed. Britain should have done the same when
by steanne 8y ago
> Countries that have previously held referendums on joining the EU have done so after negotiations were 100% completed. Britain should have done the same when leaving: negotiate a complete Brexit deal first, then vote on that.
that was refused.
https://www.theguardian.com/politics/2016/oct/03/eu-commission-still-refuses-uk-talks-before-article-50-triggered https://www.theguardian.com/politics/2016/oct/03/eu-commissi...
- detaro 8y agoWouldn't a second referendum be basically the same effect? Vote now on a negotiation result, with the ability to stay in the EU if that's the voting outcome. But that's not how it had been sold and structured from the start, so now it's seen as going back on the result of the first referendum. (and it wasn't established beforehand that revoking the Article 50 notice is possible, so it's somewhat understandable that wasn't the initial structure - although if it had been taken seriously, that possibly could have been established)