>Leibniz's strange philosophy has had no impact at all on science in the West. What is this claim based on? His philosophy didn't have an impact on his own sci

>Leibniz's strange philosophy has had no impact at all on science in the West. What is this claim based on? His philosophy didn't have an impact on his own science, so perhaps a claim that a belief that God creates a mere appearance of causality, kills science, is a little overblown. >The author did not deny that. He is talking about the overall trends. While hand waving away GDP and other, more obvious indicators.