2 ms·
More concisely: sets of numbers are equivalent if there exists a bijection between them. EDIT: Oh, the sample chapter actually mentions this exact point in a f
by throwawaymath 8y ago
More concisely: sets of numbers are equivalent if there exists a bijection between them.
EDIT: Oh, the sample chapter actually mentions this exact point in a footnote. I guess I can still be clever by saying, "Sets of numbers are equivalent if they're isomorphic." :)