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How does this argument apply to European countries that had no colonies, such as Switzerland? Japan is a bit of an aberration. It was the only non-western coun
by graeme 8y ago
How does this argument apply to European countries that had no colonies, such as Switzerland?
Japan is a bit of an aberration. It was the only non-western country to industrialize early.
Now, India might have done so also, had it somehow avoided industrialization yet maintained contact with industrializing countries. But, a counterpoint to this is that India basically didn't industrialize after independence either. Only when the "License Raj" was done away with several decades later did India start to grow quickly. (In other words, mere absensce of colonization was not sufficient for growth)
- shripadk 8y agoDon't forget to also take into account population difference between India and Japan and the difference in land area. Also, don't forget that one of the gravest sins committed by British was to Partition India into two halves on the basis of Religion which caused millions to be displaced and millions more to die in communal clashes. By partitioning India on the basis of Religion resources were distributed unevenly. Even to this day, both halves of the once Undivided India are fighting over water resources. Many in India believe it was a deliberate ploy to keep always keep disharmony in India even after Independence. India never achieved true Independence for a really long time.