If the Chinese sold furniture at a loss for market dominance, after the said dominance is gained, did the price soar? The Chinese made cheaper furniture due to

If the Chinese sold furniture at a loss for market dominance, after the said dominance is gained, did the price soar? The Chinese made cheaper furniture due to a lot of reasons, cheap labor, cheap resources, and presumably lower quality may be some of them, but selling at a loss definitely is not.