19 ms·

Blacks comprise about 14% of the US population, but only 1.4% of the top 1% household income. That means that whites are about 10 times more likely to belong to

Blacks comprise about 14% of the US population, but only 1.4% of the top 1% household income. That means that whites are about 10 times more likely to belong to this elite. Many on the intersectional left consider this evidence that blacks are (still) oppressed by whites. Jews comprise about 2.5% of the US population, but about 25% of billionaires are Jewish. That means that Jews are about 10 times more likely than non-Jewish whites to belong to this elite. Nazis consider this evidence that there is a Jewish conspiracy to oppress whites. What is the difference? (Btw, I'm not American, and in my country, there are fairly few of both blacks and Jews, so I see this from the outside.)

manfredo 8y ago
The pragmatic reality is that if a demographic has generally left-leaning views then this absolves them of the sin of privilege. This plays out on an individual level as well. Consider how many immensely privileged and wealthy individuals don't get called privileged (or at least, don't get called privileged with any significant degree of intensity) with the rationale that their support of progressive ideals absolves them of their privilege. This is the reason why I outwardly exaggerate support for things like discriminatory hiring policies that favor women and URMs. If I fail to signal the right virtues, then I will be considered (racist | sexist | *phobic) and my professional reputation and opportunities will suffer.