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It's quite common for both of the main parties in the USA (Democrats and Republicans) to try to disenfranchise voting districts that vote predominantly for the
by rcthompson 16y ago
It's quite common for both of the main parties in the USA (Democrats and Republicans) to try to disenfranchise voting districts that vote predominantly for the other party. This can be done by sabotaging voting machines, resulting in long wait times that will discourage people from voting (as mentioned by another comment); or intentionally underestimating voter turnout and delivering too few machines in the first place; or by spreading rumors that it's a landslide and they don't need to vote; or spreading misinformation on how to fill out the ballot, resulting in failed votes; or intentionally putting polling places in the bad part of town to scare away voters; or putting polling places far away from public transit and/or sufficient parking space; or any number of underhanded tactics designed to prevent people from. None of it is ever really proven or investigated, but you tend to get a lot of highly significant p-values on election day, indicating that most of these events are probably intentional, and not accidental.
And don't forget Gerrymandering, in which the party in power redraws the voting district lines to ensure that every district has a majority of their party (though that happens before election day): http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gerrymandering http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gerrymandering
Edit: I added a few more examples from other replies that represent common methods of intentional sabotage.