4 ms·
Not according to the article, which purports that as many as 1 in 100 people have "differences or disorders of sex". That is a much higher number than I've hea
by merlincorey 8y ago
Not according to the article, which purports that as many as 1 in 100 people have "differences or disorders of sex".
That is a much higher number than I've heard thrown around before, and probably it has something to do with the phrasing of "differences or disorders of sex", which may include much greater differences and disorders than usually mentioned (such as XXY chromosomes, etc).
It would be very interesting to know what precisely they are counting as "differences of sex" -- hopefully not simply aesthetic differences, which I believe most people are aware there is an incredible variety of expressions.
- yesenadam 8y agoWell, it does say "By some estimates, as many as one in 100 people have", which sounds like it means, "by the highest estimate anyone has made", or "range with highest maximum anyone has estimated". Usually a more average number is used, than an extreme, when an actual value is unknown.