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If a person identifies as a male, this is gender. His genitalia regardless of identification indicates sex. Am I correct?
by crimsonalucard 8y ago
If a person identifies as a male, this is gender. His genitalia regardless of identification indicates sex. Am I correct?
- InitialLastName 8y ago> His genitalia regardless of identification indicates sex. More specifically, his biology regardless of identification. This is a surprisingly complicated gray area, though; there is a pretty wide space for biological sex to be ambiguous in different ways. For example, it is possible for hormonal differences to cause a person with XX chromosomes to develop male features, a person with XY chromosomes to develop female features, or for a person (especially an infant) to have ambiguous or hybrid features.
- hello_marmalade 8y agoThis is exceedingly rare. Intersex individuals, or individuals with genetic deformities or mutations are not that common, and none could appropriately labelled as a "third sex".
- InitialLastName 8y agoI'm not labeling any of them as a third sex, or denying that it's a rare issue. I'm just saying that there's a big enough gray area that one might want to consider it before driving policy. It's probably more common than you think too. From TFA: > By some estimates, as many as one in 100 people have > differences or disorders of sex development, such as > hormonal conditions, genetic changes or anatomical > ambiguities, some of which mean that their genitalia > cannot clearly be classified as male or female.
- merlincorey 8y agoNot according to the article, which purports that as many as 1 in 100 people have "differences or disorders of sex". That is a much higher number than I've heard thrown around before, and probably it has something to do with the phrasing of "differences or disorders of sex", which may include much greater differences and disorders than usually mentioned (such as XXY chromosomes, etc). It would be very interesting to know what precisely they are counting as "differences of sex" -- hopefully not simply aesthetic differences, which I believe most people are aware there is an incredible variety of expressions.
- yesenadam 8y agoWell, it does say "By some estimates, as many as one in 100 people have", which sounds like it means, "by the highest estimate anyone has made", or "range with highest maximum anyone has estimated". Usually a more average number is used, than an extreme, when an actual value is unknown.
- tdb7893 8y agoYou have the basic idea correct. One thing to note is that people often use them interchangeably.
- deleted 8y ago[deleted]
- dragonwriter 8y ago> If a person identifies as a male, this is gender. Strictly, gender identity. > His genitalia regardless of identification indicates sex. His genitalia is one aspect of biological sex, and it typically correlates with other aspects of biological sex. If society deems genitalia as particularly important (as many have), it may also determine ascribed gender. Biological sex, ascribed gender, and gender identity are three different things (and a person may have more than one ascribed gender from different sources, though the most commonly ascribed one in the society in which they live is normally the one that is of most concern.) It's a common modern norm (that the government proposal at issue flies in the face of) to align ascribed gender with gender identity.