5 ms·

Modafinil isn't a stimulant.

by joshu 16y ago

silentbicycle 16y ago
Then what is it? I don't have a PDR on hand, but Wikipedia says it's an "analeptic", a central nervous system stimulant used specifically to control sleepiness.
- digitailor 16y ago
  The PDR describes its action as "unknown."
  - silentbicycle 16y ago
    Does that mean something like, "it has stimulant-like effects, but its actual mechanism is more complex and not fully understood"? Serious question, not trying to sound flippant.
    - digitailor 16y ago
      The PDR is very vague on this for a reason- they have no idea. The doctors I have spoken to about it seem to think it is not a stimulant, it is something "better." They are calling it a wakefulness promoting agent. This isn't just PR boobspeak- the docs don't equate it with speed or coke, and with good reason. It has NOT been shown to have the long term damaging effects on dopamine and serotonin receptors those drugs do.
      - silentbicycle 16y ago
        Ok, thanks. IIRC, the exact mechanism for piracetam isn't fully understood either (something involving acetylcholine) - they decided to create the "nootropic" designation for it rather than classify it as a stimulant. The general consensus is that it's safe (no known LD-50, relatively mild side-effects) and makes orange juice taste horrible.
- mmt 16y ago
  I find rxlist.com contains essentially the same (straight from the manufacturer) information as a PDR, without the bulk, expense, and latency of paper distribution.
Construct 16y ago
Modafinil is most certainly a stimulant. Its mode of action isn't identical to that of Adderall (amphetamine) and Ritalin (methylphenidate) but then again neither is that of caffeine, but it is still a stimulant. Adderall and Ritalin increase extra-cellular concentrations of dopamine and norepinephrine. Modafinil has been shown in many studies to elevate dopamine and norepinephrine concentrations in certain regions of the brain. It may not accomplish this as directly as Ritalin or Adderall, but the effect is there. There are additional glutamate-enhancing and GABA-reducing effects to Modafinil as well, which is perhaps where the "Modafinil is not a stimulant" misconception comes from. Still, administering a dopamine antagonist diminishes some of Modafinil's effects, much in the same way it diminishes the effects of Adderall or Ritalin. But even without delving into the pharmacology of Modafinil, how you can you possibly not call Modafinil a stimulant? It promotes wakefulness, increases concentration, and substitutes for Adderall and Ritalin in narcolepsy treatment. It is also a Schedule IV controlled substance (FYI, do not attempt to import a controlled substance, but Adrafanil is a Modafinil precursor and is not scheduled.) indicating there is even a risk of abuse.
- digitailor 16y ago
  The PDR describes its action as "unknown," and says it is not a stimulant. This is a common error.
  - _delirium 16y ago
    The manufacturer and FDA seem to consider it at least similar to a stimulant, with stimulant-like effects and possible dependence problems typical of stimulants. From the prescribing information: In addition to its wake-promoting effects and ability to increase locomotor activity in animals, modafinil produces psychoactive and euphoric effects, alterations in mood, perception, thinking, and feelings typical of other CNS stimulants in humans. Modafinil has reinforcing properties, as evidenced by its self-administration in monkeys previously trained to self-administer cocaine. Modafinil was also partially discriminated as stimulant-like. And from the safety information label: PROVIGIL is a Schedule IV drug. PROVIGIL produces psychoactive and euphoric effects, alterations in mood, perception, thinking and feelings typical of other CNS stimulants. Physicians should follow patients closely, especially those with a history of drug and/or stimulant abuse.
deleted 16y ago
[deleted]
digitailor 16y ago
Please discontinue downvoting the parent comment, it is correct. Provigil is not classed a stimulant in the PDR.
- Construct 16y ago
  Arguing that Modafinil is not a stimulant is like arguing that alcohol is not a drug. Sure, you can twist words and definitions, but all you're doing is re-drawing the cutoff line between what is and what is not a stimulant. Modafinil is not a typical stimulant, but it provides stimulation, increases brain activity, increases self-reported measures of aggression, restlessness, and anxiety in double-blind testing, is a controlled substance with recognized abuse potential, and many of the stimulating effects are blocked by the same drugs that block the effects of stimulants. Cephalon marketing is probably eager to get away and "stimulant" moniker, but this is an argument over semantics rather than pharmacology. Modafinil is, by all measures and effects, a stimulant.
  - digitailor 16y ago
    We are talking about medical and pharmaceutical classification here. "Stimulant" has a medical meaning. Provigil has NOT been classed a stimulant, which has a specific meaning. The Physician's Drug Reference (PDR) is the last word on this, legally. That is why I keep saying it is not a stimulant. It isn't until the PDR says it is, to any medical professional. I have taken a lot of Provigil, and I understand why it has not been classified a stimulant. It does not have the physical effects of other stimulants. With the education and intelligence level being so high here on HN, I'm surprised to see inaccurate information being posited so confidently. It is NOT medically correct, and I'm not sure what the value of the non-medically correct "definition" of stimulant you are giving is supposed to be.
    - deleted 16y ago
      [deleted]
    - Construct 16y ago
      The Physician's Drug Reference (PDR) is not the last word on this. It is literally just a desk reference, as the name implies. It isn't meant to be a definitive guide to medications. It is meant to be a quick and easy way for physicians to get an overview of a medication. The following is taken directly from the FDA's website for Modafinil ( http://www.accessdata.fda.gov/drugsatfda_docs/label/2007/020717s020s013s018lbl.pdf http://www.accessdata.fda.gov/drugsatfda_docs/label/2007/020... ). This information is also included in the product information sheet you receive with your prescription, and on the Provigil website. To say that Modafinil does not have the physical effects of other stimulants is not true. They are present to a lesser degree, but still exist. In addition to its wake-promoting effects and ability to increase locomotor activity in animals, modafinil produces psychoactive and euphoric effects, alterations in mood, perception, thinking, and feelings typical of other CNS stimulants in humans. Modafinil has reinforcing properties, as evidenced by its self-administration in monkeys previously trained to self-administer cocaine. Modafinil was also partially discriminated as stimulant-like.

Modafinil isn't a stimulant.

by joshu 16y ago

Modafinil isn't a stimulant.

Then what is it? I don't have a PDR on hand, but Wikipedia says it's an "analeptic", a central nervous system stimulant used specifically to control sleepiness.

digitailor 16y ago
The PDR describes its action as "unknown."
- silentbicycle 16y ago
  Does that mean something like, "it has stimulant-like effects, but its actual mechanism is more complex and not fully understood"? Serious question, not trying to sound flippant.
  - digitailor 16y ago
    The PDR is very vague on this for a reason- they have no idea. The doctors I have spoken to about it seem to think it is not a stimulant, it is something "better." They are calling it a wakefulness promoting agent. This isn't just PR boobspeak- the docs don't equate it with speed or coke, and with good reason. It has NOT been shown to have the long term damaging effects on dopamine and serotonin receptors those drugs do.
    - silentbicycle 16y ago
      Ok, thanks. IIRC, the exact mechanism for piracetam isn't fully understood either (something involving acetylcholine) - they decided to create the "nootropic" designation for it rather than classify it as a stimulant. The general consensus is that it's safe (no known LD-50, relatively mild side-effects) and makes orange juice taste horrible.
mmt 16y ago
I find rxlist.com contains essentially the same (straight from the manufacturer) information as a PDR, without the bulk, expense, and latency of paper distribution.

Construct 16y ago

Modafinil is most certainly a stimulant. Its mode of action isn't identical to that of Adderall (amphetamine) and Ritalin (methylphenidate) but then again neither is that of caffeine, but it is still a stimulant. Adderall and Ritalin increase extra-cellular concentrations of dopamine and norepinephrine. Modafinil has been shown in many studies to elevate dopamine and norepinephrine concentrations in certain regions of the brain. It may not accomplish this as directly as Ritalin or Adderall, but the effect is there. There are additional glutamate-enhancing and GABA-reducing effects to Modafinil as well, which is perhaps where the "Modafinil is not a stimulant" misconception comes from. Still, administering a dopamine antagonist diminishes some of Modafinil's effects, much in the same way it diminishes the effects of Adderall or Ritalin. But even without delving into the pharmacology of Modafinil, how you can you possibly not call Modafinil a stimulant? It promotes wakefulness, increases concentration, and substitutes for Adderall and Ritalin in narcolepsy treatment. It is also a Schedule IV controlled substance (FYI, do not attempt to import a controlled substance, but Adrafanil is a Modafinil precursor and is not scheduled.) indicating there is even a risk of abuse.

digitailor 16y ago
The PDR describes its action as "unknown," and says it is not a stimulant. This is a common error.
- _delirium 16y ago
  The manufacturer and FDA seem to consider it at least similar to a stimulant, with stimulant-like effects and possible dependence problems typical of stimulants. From the prescribing information: In addition to its wake-promoting effects and ability to increase locomotor activity in animals, modafinil produces psychoactive and euphoric effects, alterations in mood, perception, thinking, and feelings typical of other CNS stimulants in humans. Modafinil has reinforcing properties, as evidenced by its self-administration in monkeys previously trained to self-administer cocaine. Modafinil was also partially discriminated as stimulant-like. And from the safety information label: PROVIGIL is a Schedule IV drug. PROVIGIL produces psychoactive and euphoric effects, alterations in mood, perception, thinking and feelings typical of other CNS stimulants. Physicians should follow patients closely, especially those with a history of drug and/or stimulant abuse.

deleted 16y ago

[deleted]

digitailor 16y ago

Please discontinue downvoting the parent comment, it is correct. Provigil is not classed a stimulant in the PDR.

Construct 16y ago
Arguing that Modafinil is not a stimulant is like arguing that alcohol is not a drug. Sure, you can twist words and definitions, but all you're doing is re-drawing the cutoff line between what is and what is not a stimulant. Modafinil is not a typical stimulant, but it provides stimulation, increases brain activity, increases self-reported measures of aggression, restlessness, and anxiety in double-blind testing, is a controlled substance with recognized abuse potential, and many of the stimulating effects are blocked by the same drugs that block the effects of stimulants. Cephalon marketing is probably eager to get away and "stimulant" moniker, but this is an argument over semantics rather than pharmacology. Modafinil is, by all measures and effects, a stimulant.
- digitailor 16y ago
  We are talking about medical and pharmaceutical classification here. "Stimulant" has a medical meaning. Provigil has NOT been classed a stimulant, which has a specific meaning. The Physician's Drug Reference (PDR) is the last word on this, legally. That is why I keep saying it is not a stimulant. It isn't until the PDR says it is, to any medical professional. I have taken a lot of Provigil, and I understand why it has not been classified a stimulant. It does not have the physical effects of other stimulants. With the education and intelligence level being so high here on HN, I'm surprised to see inaccurate information being posited so confidently. It is NOT medically correct, and I'm not sure what the value of the non-medically correct "definition" of stimulant you are giving is supposed to be.
  - deleted 16y ago
    [deleted]
  - Construct 16y ago
    The Physician's Drug Reference (PDR) is not the last word on this. It is literally just a desk reference, as the name implies. It isn't meant to be a definitive guide to medications. It is meant to be a quick and easy way for physicians to get an overview of a medication. The following is taken directly from the FDA's website for Modafinil ( http://www.accessdata.fda.gov/drugsatfda_docs/label/2007/020717s020s013s018lbl.pdf http://www.accessdata.fda.gov/drugsatfda_docs/label/2007/020... ). This information is also included in the product information sheet you receive with your prescription, and on the Provigil website. To say that Modafinil does not have the physical effects of other stimulants is not true. They are present to a lesser degree, but still exist. In addition to its wake-promoting effects and ability to increase locomotor activity in animals, modafinil produces psychoactive and euphoric effects, alterations in mood, perception, thinking, and feelings typical of other CNS stimulants in humans. Modafinil has reinforcing properties, as evidenced by its self-administration in monkeys previously trained to self-administer cocaine. Modafinil was also partially discriminated as stimulant-like.