I feel like I'm having a math stroke. The posterior probability of p being less than 3/N for Beta(1, N+1) should be integral(Beta(1, N+1), 0, 3/N), right? Tha

I feel like I'm having a math stroke. The posterior probability of p being less than 3/N for Beta(1, N+1) should be integral(Beta(1, N+1), 0, 3/N), right? That trends toward zero, so I must be wrong, but I can't for the life of me remember why. EDIT: Ah! I was accidentally using Beta instead of the PDF for Beta.