2 ms·
> Because the money has already been taxed? I stipulated that it is the SAME money. In both cases, it has "already been taxed" by the person spending the money
by microtherion 8y ago
> Because the money has already been taxed?
I stipulated that it is the SAME money. In both cases, it has "already been taxed" by the person spending the money. Yet in one case, the person receiving the money pays taxes, in the other, they do not.
- refurb 8y agoYes, but one is a business transaction (exchange of goods or services) and one is not. So i would argue they aren’t the same.
- deleted 8y ago[deleted]