4 ms·
1.4K years is certainly an overestimate. 150 years maybe a better timeframe since the Industrial revolution started going in full swing. But your same logic ap
by luminati 8y ago
1.4K years is certainly an overestimate. 150 years maybe a better timeframe since the Industrial revolution started going in full swing.
But your same logic applies to any non major Western European language too.
But past 150 years -> don't think any major scientific discovery was done in the Japanese/Korean/Chinese language. All of them was first written down and communicated and published first in the English language.
- sonnyblarney 8y agoNot quite - the academic world wasn't Arabic up until the industrial revolution. The height of Arabic intellectualism was short lived, basically the early middle ages, not even into the Renaissance, let alone the enlightenment. However PC it is or not - it's true that not much has been done in the Arab world for a long time, say 700 years. Muslim Golden Age: "This period is traditionally said to have ended with the collapse of the Abbasid caliphate due to Mongol invasions and the Siege of Baghdad in 1258 AD" from Wikipedia. Up until 1950, something like 5% of the Arab world was literate. Very sparse population, very little industry. Without Oil ... most of us would know nothing about 'Arab' - it'd be on our radar as much as Morocco is today (a nominally Arab country without Oil) which is to say not at all. Basically not hugely important to us.