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Yes. Illegal redistribution violates the owner's copyright (in its absolute literal sense). While there may be no actual damages, a country might allow for stat
by Pzychotix 8y ago
Yes. Illegal redistribution violates the owner's copyright (in its absolute literal sense). While there may be no actual damages, a country might allow for statutory damages to be sought after. For example, the US allows for such statutory damages:
https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/17/504 https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/17/504