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There's nothing in the US constitution that prohibits taxation without representation.
by wl 8y ago
There's nothing in the US constitution that prohibits taxation without representation.
- klipt 8y agoObviously, otherwise all the non-citizens (e.g. green card holders) who pay taxes in the US would have to be allowed to vote too.
- toomuchtodo 8y agoNot to mention the District of Columbia (which quite literally has "taxation without representation" on their license plate).
- eesmith 8y agoAnd those disenfranchised due to criminal conviction.
- gamblor956 8y agoCitizens in DC are allowed to vote in federal elections. However, per the Constitution itself, as a non-state DC is not entitled to a Congressperson or Senator unless the Constitution is amended. (It took a federal amendment for DC residents to get the right to vote in presidential elections, which in the US actually means the right to vote for representatives of the electoral college that actually elect the president. The amendment just gave DC electors.)
- SilasX 8y agoThere's a lot in its existence's justification that does...
- DoofusOfDeath 8y agoIANAL, so I'll just ask: has the SCOTUS made rulings that they justified based on the Declaration of Independence rather than the U.S. Constitution?
- eesmith 8y agohttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Declarationism https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Declarationism . I also found http://www.members.tripod.com/candst/doisussc.htm http://www.members.tripod.com/candst/doisussc.htm which says "that there are at least 100 United States Supreme Court cases that mention the words "Declaration of Independence" somewhere in the dicta of that opinion. Yet, not one single case can be found where the authority for the holding in that case was the Declaration of independence."
- Gokenstein 8y agoYou're telling me that an American lied about the reasons for going to war!? Next you're gonna tell me it was just a plot by wealthy white men to enrich themselves by subverting a foreign government.