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Bayes’ Theorem in the 21st Century (2013) [pdf]
- xcodevn 8y agoI truly believe that Bayesian inference is the statistics of the 21st century. Recent advances in MCMC (e.g., NUTS, Stan [1]) and variational inference (e.g., ADVI [2], VAE [3], etc.) + more computing power than ever promise a near future in which Bayesian inference is the default inference engine. Prior distribution is a beautiful and logical mechanism for adding regularization, domain-specific knowledge to our model. [1] Stan, a platform for statistical modeling http://mc-stan.org/ http://mc-stan.org/ [2] Automatic Differentiation Variational Inference https://arxiv.org/abs/1603.00788 https://arxiv.org/abs/1603.00788 [3] Auto-Encoding Variational Bayes https://arxiv.org/abs/1312.6114 https://arxiv.org/abs/1312.6114
- riku_iki 8y agoCurious if there is any work to build ecosystem to run complex models on ML accelerators, like some layers for TF for example..
- xcodevn 8y agoThere are several libraries. PyMC4 [1], the next version of PyMC3, will introduce TF as a backend. Tensorflow probability [2] from Google. PYRO [3], from Uber, uses Pytorch backend. [1]: https://github.com/pymc-devs/pymc4 https://github.com/pymc-devs/pymc4 [2]: https://www.tensorflow.org/probability/ https://www.tensorflow.org/probability/ [3]: http://pyro.ai/ http://pyro.ai/
- andbberger 8y agoNUTS and Stan are quite old at this point! Here's a more recent advance https://arxiv.org/pdf/1711.09268.pdf https://arxiv.org/pdf/1711.09268.pdf
- panarky 8y agoStan supports Hamiltonian Monte Carlo. https://arxiv.org/pdf/1701.02434.pdf https://arxiv.org/pdf/1701.02434.pdf
- andbberger 8y agoMany samplers are based on HMC, it's a general class of samplers, not a specific algorithm. NUTS is a variation of HMC, as well as the paper I linked above. 'vanilla' HMC uses detailed balance to guarantee that the stationary distribution of the chain is the one you want, causing the process to behave like a random walk. So although the Hamiltonian bit of HMC lets you take these great big steps through state space, you end up retracing your steps quite a lot. Hence NUTS (No-U-turn sampler) et. al
- bo1024 8y agoIt's fine for a company or individual trying to optimize an objective, but not as a way to do good science (which this article is about).
- xcodevn 8y agoI strongly disagree. Bayesian inference is the only known self-consistent formal system for doing science, i.e. updating our belief system about the world based on the current evidence.
- bo1024 8y agoThe problem with that reasoning is: whose belief system? Where do you come up with a prior that everyone agrees with?
- KirinDave 8y agoActually, it's the strength of Bayesian inference that these assumptions are made apparent. Coming to consensus on priors is the same process for arriving at consensus that all scientific inquiry must engage in. Anyone who says frequentist methods somehow more accurately represent an underlying reality are pulling a fast one.
- bo1024 8y agoHmm, I think part of the question is where this debate and consensus should occur. I believe in firmly separating rigorous science from opinion and belief. To me, it follows that scientific research should focus on presenting evidence and leave it to Bayesian individuals to update their beliefs based on this evidence. Similarly I think argument or discussion about priors is not in scope for scientific research (except maybe a bit in the "motivation" subsection). (edit: I see now the top post here on this article also discusses this point.)
- KirinDave 8y ago
- mturmon 8y agoBut note, the last paragraph of TFA cautions against use of a Bayesian prior in cases where it is not well supported by actual hard prior information. It is very hard to validate a given choice of a prior in many applications. E.g., if I claim one prior, and another investigator claims a sharper one, it can be very difficult to decide who is right. If the prior does not wash out due to lots of data, this indicates a serious and fundamental problem.
- xcodevn 8y ago> It is very hard to validate a given choice of a prior in many applications. E.g., if I claim one prior, and another investigator claims a sharper one, it can be very difficult to decide who is right. Both prior and likelihood are our model's assumptions. So, the prior validation problem is similar to the likelihood validation problem. To check a Bayesian model or any model, we need to bring the model out of the formal world, to the real world for validation. Prior predictive simulation method, which generates random data points from the prior, is a good heuristic to check if the prior is NOT plausible.
- mturmon 8y ago> ...the prior validation problem is similar to the likelihood validation problem... But priors can be much harder. Say I’m trying to estimate a wind speed from the blade velocity of a windmill. I can bring a more accurate wind speed sensor to calibrate the windmill against the wind speed, perhaps aided by basic physics. This is the likelihood portion. But what should the prior be? The typical speed at that time of day? The speed in January? The speed on cloudy days? I have to have a crisp number — a full distribution actually, accurate out to the tails. I really have very little grounding for choosing that distribution. I started out just wanting to relate the wind speed to some data in a rather concrete way, and now I’ve been roped in to choosing a crisp distribution for a rather amorphous state of nature. This is a deep problem. We can sharpen the problem. Say my number and yours are different. How do we tell who is right? One can try a different tack: I’m being stubborn. The prior will mostly wash out in any well-posed problem, or else why try to solve it? But now we’re back to frequentism, just looking at the likelihood. HN tends to invoke the Bayesian framework as a complete solution to inference — I’m just trying to demonstrate that there are problems with that approach.
- platz 8y agoI feel like variational inference has never been described very well to an intro audience even having statistical basics. Is it a graduate level topic or is there an intuitive course that teaches it to beginners?
- klipt 8y ago"variational inference" is perhaps an uninformative name. You can just think of it as - approximating the posterior using a nice parametric distribution, then - minimizing some error (typically KL Divergence) between your approximate posterior and the true posterior
- ced 8y agoDo you know _why_ KL divergence is minimized? I get that it gives a lower bound on the marginal likelihood, which is cool, but is that it? What are the alternatives?
- ssivark 8y agoKL divergence is motivated nicely from an information/coding theory viewpoint. It's very closely related to Shannon-von Neumann entropy [1], and KL(P||Q) characterizes the efficiency of a code designed for a model distribution P, when applied to reality which is actually represented by Q. A lot of recent work focuses on the Wasserstein divergence [1] as an alternative. One advantage of Wasserstein over KL is that the Wasserstein metric provides better fit over the whole distribution instead of localizing on some specific regions, thereby preventing "mode collapse". This makes it a popular metric for training Generative Adversarial Networks (GANs). For recent work on applying Wasserstein distance to variational inference, see: https://arxiv.org/abs/1805.11284 https://arxiv.org/abs/1805.11284 [1]: https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/64574/definition-of-the-entropy/64597#64597 https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/64574/definition... [2]: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wasserstein_metric https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wasserstein_metric
- meatmanek 8y agoI found this talk to be useful, despite the technical difficulties https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Dv86zdWjJKQ https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Dv86zdWjJKQ (I haven't watched https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ogdv_6dbvVQ https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ogdv_6dbvVQ but it seems like a longer version of the same talk)
- adamnemecek 8y agoBayesian theorem made more sense once I started seeing the conditional (if statement) in conditional probability.
- cultus 8y agoYep. Baye's theorem is actually a generalization of contrapositivity (if A implies B, then "not B" implies "not A") to stochastic settings. It's not usually taught in an intuitive way.
- adamnemecek 8y agoYeah, I had to figure some of this out on my own. Do you have a good book/resource on this?
- celrod 8y agoProbability Theory the Logic of Science is an excellent textbook on math and theory. Note the title even references cultus' point. Unfortunately it predates many of the modern developments in methods / computation, but if you want to dive deep, I strongly recommend it. It takes the perspective of designing a reasoning robot to make the most effective decisions. Another resource, eg Stan's manual, can get you up and running on computation/inference. Your choice in computation tool should reflect the type and size of of problems you're interested in, and languages you're comfortable with. Stan has bindings for many scripting languages. R also offers Nimble, Python PyMC3 and Edward, and Julia has DynamicHMC and Turing. (EDIT: xcodevn has better Python recommendations: https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=18213923 https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=18213923 )
- dna_polymerase 8y agoFor those who are new to Bayesian Statistics and not to eager to dive into the maths right away I recommend Think Bayes [0]. It gives a nice introduction for those who know programming (Python). The ebook is available for free (see link). [0]: https://greenteapress.com/wp/think-bayes/ https://greenteapress.com/wp/think-bayes/
- platz 8y ago"The prior can generally only be understood in the context of the likelihood" https://arxiv.org/abs/1708.07487 https://arxiv.org/abs/1708.07487
- platz 8y agoAn interesting alyernative to frequentist and Bayesian is that of the 'likelihoodist' http://gandenberger.org/wp-content/uploads/2014/07/Statistical_Methods.png http://gandenberger.org/wp-content/uploads/2014/07/Statistic... http://gandenberger.org/2014/07/21/intro-to-statistical-methods/ http://gandenberger.org/2014/07/21/intro-to-statistical-meth...
- Vaslo 8y agoOne of the best examples of the idea of Bayes is the Monte Hall problem. It is a good example of how prior probability (3 unopened doors) can lead to a more clear posterior-host selects an unopened door with a bad prize and you are asked whether to stay with the unopened door you chose or switch to the remaining open door. Turns out via Bayes it’s better to switch doors because you have more information now. Tons of write ups and YouTube videos out there on it but here is one example of an explanation: http://angrystatistician.blogspot.com/2012/06/bayes-solution-to-monty-hall.html?m=1 http://angrystatistician.blogspot.com/2012/06/bayes-solution...
- daveFNbuck 8y agoBayes' theorem also helps clear up some of the subtleties behind the Monty Hall problem. Switching is advantageous because Monty knows which door has the prize. If Monty doesn't know which door has the prize, seeing a non-prize door results in 50-50 odds that your door has the prize. Depending on how you model Monty Hall's prior probability of revealing the prize, seeing a non-prize door can result in the probability anywhere between 0 and 2/3 of switching being advantageous.
- loup-vaillant 8y agoMy take on the subtleties, in painstaking details, with source code so you can reproduce my experimental results: http://loup-vaillant.fr/tutorials/monty-hall http://loup-vaillant.fr/tutorials/monty-hall I consider several kind of Monties there, including an "enemy" that will try to open the prize door if he can.
- daveFNbuck 8y agoI like your attention to detail on this! I'm a bit surprised you don't include the overall probability of winning against each Monty with an optimal strategy. I think it's very interesting that the helper doesn't increase your odds beyond 2/3.
- 8y ago
- formalsystem 8y agoDoes anyone have any examples of informative priors that they used to solve some problem at work?
- xcodevn 8y agoSee the discovery paper of gravitational waves [1] which uses informative priors from physical evidences/constraints. [1]: https://journals.aps.org/prl/abstract/10.1103/PhysRevLett.119.161101 https://journals.aps.org/prl/abstract/10.1103/PhysRevLett.11...
- deleted 8y ago[deleted]
- laretluval 8y agoSuppose you have a probability monad, implementing enumeration or random sampling. Like Amb but with probabilities attached. bayesRule :: (Prob a) -> (a -> Prob b) -> b -> Prob a bayesRule prior likelihood data = do h <- prior d <- likelihood h guard $ d == data return h I don’t actually do Haskell...just thinking out loud. Looks like it was written similarly here http://www.randomhacks.net/files/build-your-own-probability-monads.pdf http://www.randomhacks.net/files/build-your-own-probability-...
- platz 8y agod == data requires an exact match of data, doesn't seem right
- digitalzombie 8y agoWritten by the creator of the bootstrap method in statistic. Bayesian isn't used much in the industry compare to frequentist approach. Likelihoodist is even rarer. I've learned a bit on Bayesian but end up refocusing on time series and survival analysis within frequentist domain. There is waaaay more job posting and people that you work under that are frequentist or more comfortable doing it the old way.
- Koshkin 8y agoBut it’s worth noting that the most important branch of the physical science today, quantum theory, is manifestly non-Bayesian.
- dfsdfsdfsdfs 8y agocare to elaborate ?
- kovrik 8y agohttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quantum_Bayesianism https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quantum_Bayesianism
- Koshkin 8y agoQBism is an idealist interpretation of QM. (Which is to say, non-scientific.)
- qwerty456127 8y agoBTW can anybody share a link to a really simple explanation of the Bayes' Theorem? I've once seen one, it was a size of a twit and would let you understand it in a matter of seconds, all the "super-duper intuitive explanations" around are too huge and complex actually.
- aportnoy 8y agoThis is the best I've seen, and I've seen a lot: http://arbital.com/p/bayes_rule_guide http://arbital.com/p/bayes_rule_guide
- Rainymood 8y agoP(A|B) = P(B|A)P(A)/P(B) Is a rule from statistics. In Bayesian speak this usually becomes P(prior|data) = P(data|prior)P(prior)/P(data) or P(prior|data) proportional to P(data|prior)P(prior) where P(prior|data) is also called the "posterior". The main idea is that you have some idea of "the prior" and you update it with your data to "update the prior" to get the posterior. This is probably not what you were looking for but this is it.
- xcodevn 8y agoBy definition of conditional probability: P(A|B) = P(A,B) / P(B) and P(B|A) = P(A,B) / P(A). Therefore, P(B|A) = P(A|B) * P(B) / P(A).
- fela 8y agoI like to split the theorem in the following way: P(Hypothesis|Data) = P(Hypothesis) * evidence_factor P(Hypothesis) is the prior probability of the Hypothesis being true, in other words the probability we gave to the Hypothesis before seeing any of the data we are using in the theorem. When new data is observed, we use Bayes' theorem to update our believe in the hypothesis, which in practice means multiplying our prior probability by a number that depends on how well the new data fits our hypothesis. More precisely: evidence_factor = P(Data|Hypothesis)/P(Data) So it is the ratio of how likely our data is if our hypothesis is true, compared to (divided by) how likely it is in general. If it is more likely to occur in our Hypothesis, our probability of it being true increases, if it is more likely in general (and thus also more likely in case our hypothesis is not true, you can prove mathematically that those two statements are the same), then our believe in the hypothesis decreases. TLDR: Prob(Hypothesis after I have seen new data) = Prob(Hypothesis before I saw the new data) * (how likely I am to see the data if my hypothesis is true, compared to in general)
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- zhoge 8y agoInteresting article (thanks for sharing). Indeed, a genuine prior is the key to apply Bayes' rule. However, is there a proof that it always exist? (As Feynman would question the law of physics changing in time.)
- laplacesdemon48 8y agoI remember the frequentist approach taught in introductory stats classes never making sense to me. I didn't want to shove "stats" into the back of my brain and just focus on graduating. I genuinely wanted to understand the world a little better. I began to research alternative approaches to modeling and conducting inference a few years ago. Discovering Bayesian Inference has had a large impact on the way I think and conduct research. There's a lot of hype and uncertainty about what "Bayesian" actually means. Here's a compact definition that I hope will attract some interest: Bayesian Inference allows you to explicitly quantify your prior beliefs and get a more complete picture of uncertainty when modeling something. If you'd like to learn more, the links below should be helpful. Introduction to Bayes' Theorem (short): https://www.countbayesie.com/blog/2015/2/18/bayes-theorem-with-lego https://www.countbayesie.com/blog/2015/2/18/bayes-theorem-wi... Bayesian A/B testing example (short): https://www.countbayesie.com/blog/2015/4/25/bayesian-ab-testing https://www.countbayesie.com/blog/2015/4/25/bayesian-ab-test... If you're interested in spending some time learning about applied Bayesian Inference, I highly recommend Statistical Rethinking. The book doesn't assume a strong mathematical background and its filled with practical examples. https://xcelab.net/rm/statistical-rethinking/ https://xcelab.net/rm/statistical-rethinking/ McElreath is currently working on a second edition of that textbook, due around 2020: http://elevanth.org/blog/2018/07/14/statistical-rethinking-edition-2-eta-2020/ http://elevanth.org/blog/2018/07/14/statistical-rethinking-e...
- loup-vaillant 8y agohttp://www.overcomingbias.com/2009/02/share-likelihood-ratios-not-posterior-beliefs.html http://www.overcomingbias.com/2009/02/share-likelihood-ratio... Seriously, the main point of an experiment is to gather evidence. Coupled with prior beliefs, you get a posterior belief, but the most important point is how much evidence the experiment provides. Sure, a full fledged posterior belief is needed to make an actual decision, like, what should we test next. And if a subject is deemed important enough that we need to be certain, we can replicate until we get enough evidence to trump any reasonable prior belief. (Mind publication bias, though, some replications are going to fail, and that's relevant evidence too.) In the mean time, it would be nice if the papers just told "the experiment provides 20dB of evidence that A is wrong, and B is right", instead of saying "B is right (at p<0.01)". No you're not certain B is right just yet. Your evidence is significant, perhaps even decisive, but it is not certain. A one in a hundred fluke is not unheard of. Also, sharing likelihood ratios (instead of posterior beliefs) makes the whole debate a bit less heated. Getting a double one on dice you just threw for the first time doesn't mean they are loaded to make you lose. It only provides about 15 decibels of evidence in favour of such a con job.
- platz 8y agoThe Bayesian believes that probability represents our beliefs about the world. The Frequentist believes that probabilities merely represent the long term frequency counts of events (for a given 'population').
- analog31 8y agoIs either of these universally true? Or is it possible that a "belief" associated with a given math tool can be chosen as appropriate to the problem being solved du jour? When I learned Bayes' theorem in college stats class, there was no mention of beliefs. It was just a straightforward theorem related to conditional probability.
- platz 8y agoYou don't need belief to write a theorem. You need it in order to use/apply it - the theorem doesn't tell you where your prior comes from.
- zby 8y ago""" The Bayesian-frequentist argument, unlike most philosophical disputes, has immediate practical consequences. Consider that after a 7-year trial on human subjects, a research team announces that drug A has proved bet- ter than drug B at the 0.05 signifi cance level. Asked why the trial took so long, the team leader replies “That was the first time the results reached the 0.05 level.” Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulators reject the team’s submission, on the frequentist grounds that interim tests of the data, by taking repeated 0.05 chances, could raise the false alarm rate to (say) 15% from the claimed 5%. A Bayesian FDA regulator would be more forgiving. Starting from a given prior distri- bution, the Bayesian posterior probability of drug A’s superiority depends only on its fi nal evaluation, not whether there might have been earlier decisions. """ Is that right? At each next trial Bayesians should feed the probability from the previous one as prior. Assuming that the first two trials did not bring the required results - then the prior to the third one should be rather small.
- loup-vaillant 8y agoThe way I read this, the first two trials did not bring enough evidence towards the drug working, but they did provide some evidence. In the end, all three experiments taken together provide pretty massive evidence that the drug actually works, way below 0.05. Of course, this all comes crashing down if the first two experiments happen to provide contrary evidence (that is, evidence the drug does not work). This would cancel out the results of the final trial somewhat, and not taking this into account is clearly cheating by publication bias.
- gweinberg 8y agoIt's wrong. Not because the stated probability at the point you stop the experiment is wrong, but because the (stupid) rule is that we'll approve the drug if the probability that the drug is better than the alternative is above some arbitrary threshold value. If you run experiments a fixed number of trials, you'll get a variety of conclusions with different strengths. If you stop as soon as you are in the "barely passing" zone, you'll get a lower number of failing result, a higher number of barely passing results, and none at all that do better than barely passing.
- gweinberg 8y ago"A Bayseian FDA regulator would b more forgiving". He absolutely would not. It should be obvious to anyone who gives the matter any thought that it must be more probable that you'll conclude drug A is better than drug B at the 5% level at some point over the course of an open ended experiment than that that will be the case at the end of a trial with a specific number of runs. In fact, the open ended stop when you win method is the equivalent of running an enormous trial and then re-anlyzing the result at each point and publishing the most favorable point as the result.
- loup-vaillant 8y agoThe "open ended stops when you win" method, has to take into account contrary evidence into account. If you make 10 experiments, and 3 of those say your new and improve medication doesn't work, you have to take those into accounts, or else you're just cheating. The only remedy against publication bias based cheating is to publish everything, including the failures. That will take care of the "wait until I get a 1 in 20 fluke" just so you can get past the p<0.05 threshold.
- mannermachine 8y agoThe only sensible "non-informative" prior is Jeffreys' prior. Invariance under reparameterization of the parameter is what I would consider to be a non-negotiable feature of any non-informative prior belief. To assign a (improper) uniform prior to the variance of a Gaussian distribution is to assign a non-uniform prior to its standard deviation, and vice versa. One can, in certain circumstances, assign priors to be non-inforamative in a particular way, but to be universally non-informative, no, it must be Jeffreys' or nothing at all. In consideration of the aforementioned, the debate about non-informative Bayesian priors is a relic of 20th century philosophy. The construction of hiearchical causality networks for the purposes of unsupervised learning is the future of Bayesian statistics, and priors in this context are rarely non-informative.
- lellotope 8y agoI agree with a tiny caveat, in that I'd change Jeffreys prior to reference prior. On the other hand, these priors can be difficult to create in some (many?) situations and it's often more tractable to do ML. Bayesian inference seems more principled to me in general if you allow for and use reference priors, but outside of that I think there are still reasons to prefer ML. There's two areas where I still have problems with priors. The first is that the sequential testing paradigm (that is, prior -> posterior -> prior) doesn't always work in reality because you often have multiple experimenters operating simultaneously and independently with different priors. In one sense this is a trivial problem but in another sense it is not. E.g., if you are a meta-analyst faced with integrating such results, is prior variation akin to publication bias? What implications does that have? The second is that there are situations in which using a prior actually might lead to unfair inequities. For example, let's say you're trying to make some inference about an individual, and know that ethnicity provides information in a statistical sense about the parameter you are making an inference about. Is it prejudicial or not to use a prior? I think using a reference prior would address this situation, but depending on the scenario you could make an argument that it is unfair (e.g., if the informative prior would suggest a positive outcome, not using it might be seen as prejudicial, but if the informative prior would suggest a negative outcome, using it might be seen as unfair). In this case, not using a prior at all actually might make sense--you might make a similar argument about non-Bayesian inference as Bayesian reference inference, but using non-prior-based inference does sidestep the issue in a sense, in that there is no longer a prior to decide about. This might be especially important in that, e.g., if you have a series of individuals, the act of choosing a prior might be seen as prejudicial in itself. I generally consider myself as an "objective Bayesian" in the Jaynesian / reference prior sense, but there are practical and theoretical scenarios where I think people are likely to run into problems.
- nickhuh 8y agoI think this article omits the most important distinction between Bayesian and Frequentist statistics: subjective vs. frequentist interpretations of probability. In my own opinion, neither is "true", they're both just different tools for different purposes. Bayesian inference is great when you have to make a decision and there are many theorems that illustrate this (for example, the arguments around coherence [1] and the complete class theorems [2]). In fact, Bayesian techniques are often useful for creating estimators with great frequentist properties! However, Bayesian interpretations of probability, and thereby the meaning of Bayesian statements, are inherently tied to the beliefs of an individual. That means that Bayesian statements usually aren't "true" in the objective / non-relative sense that we often expect from science. On the other hand, frequentist statements tend to have more of an objective flavor. The trick is: all our mathematical models have short comings and ways in which they're wrong when applied to any particular situation -- so neither really has a claim to being true. The frequentist perspective often looks at worst case risk and tends to give a more global understanding of a procedure in terms of "how does this procedure shake out in all reasonably possible scenarios?". So, frequentist methods tend to be a bit more risk-averse which is often useful but can cost you for being to pessimistic. Ultimately, the real win is to know your tools well and to pick the right one for the job. [1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coherence_(philosophical_gambling_strategy) https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coherence_(philosophical_gambl... [2] https://projecteuclid.org/euclid.aoms/1177730345 https://projecteuclid.org/euclid.aoms/1177730345
- gweinberg 8y agoI apologize for repeating myself, I don't think I'm being clear on what I'm trying to say. Let me give an illustrative example: Let's say I've got an 100% fair coin, but I want to trick you into thinking it comes up heads more often than tails. The way I do this is wit a meta-experiment: I will have 1000 trials with up to 1000 flips each, but I stop the experiment whenever I have a majority of heads. What we expect to find at the end is, I get about the same number of heads and tails in the whole meta-experiment. About 95% of the runs will have more heads than tails, but each of those runs will only have one extra head. The few runs where I did all 1000 flips will be ones where heads never had a majority, so they'll probably have lots of extra tails. Same number of heads and tails over all is the relevant result, 95% of runs had majority heads is bullshit intended to baffle you. Nobody would be fooled by such nonsense, right?
- delver 8y agoI founded my consulting based on bayesian network. If anyone needs deeper explanation or advice, feel free to reach out. manmit@dextroanalytics.com
- byt143 8y agohttps://scholar.google.com/scholar?cluster=260778085203371430&hl=en&as_sdt=0,21&sciodt=0,21#d=gs_qabs&p=&u=%23p%3DpuXAbUl4ngMJ https://scholar.google.com/scholar?cluster=26077808520337143...