4 ms·
Is this basically to do with the fact that you know how likely it is to see a boy given any of the combinations? So there's a 33% chance that there are two boys
by Sean1708 8y ago
Is this basically to do with the fact that you know how likely it is to see a boy given any of the combinations? So there's a 33% chance that there are two boys and you see a boy, a 33% chance that there's a boy and girl and you see a boy, and a 33% chance that there's a boy and a girl and you see a girl. Given that you've seen the boy you've eliminated one of the outcomes so the other two outcomes are equally likely?
- dumbfoundded 8y agoI'm confused by your comment but I'll try to explain more. Given one of the children is a boy. The only combinations possible are: GB, BG, & BB. Where G is Girl and B is Boy. The question is about the probability of the other child being a Girl. When we eliminate one of the B from each combination, we get: GB, BG, BB -> G, G, B We can see that 2/3 are G and 1/3 are B. Does this help?