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In the United States, a law cannot apply to anything before it was passed. This is in the constitution. I am not aware of any case where what you claim happened
by tathougies 8y ago
In the United States, a law cannot apply to anything before it was passed. This is in the constitution. I am not aware of any case where what you claim happened.
- mehrdadn 8y agoI meant that the instant such a law comes into effect, it applies to all existing contracts from that point onward, right? So any violations from that point onward could be enforced based on a past contract, even though that contract used to be unenforceable. The contract wouldn't need to be renegotiated, right?