4 ms·

What about it? At the time it was signed, it was enforceable. So the lawyer would be fine.

• cimmanom 8y ago
  Should the entire contract then become void when one subclause becomes unenforceable? If not, how is this different from the case where a previously unenforceable clause becomes enforceable?
  • tyre 8y ago
    No. There are standard, specific clauses in contracts to prevent this. If one clause is deemed void, the rest of the contract stays as is.
    • s73v3r_ 8y ago
      But that's the problem that we've got now. Being able to have such a blanket clause encourages putting in all kinds of crap to see what sticks.