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There was no independent Palestine before, or after, 1947. So no “land loss”.
by atemerev 8y ago
There was no independent Palestine before, or after, 1947. So no “land loss”.
- crooked-v 8y agoIf there's no independent Palestine, then Israel is "merely" allowing land to be stolen from its own apartheid-oppressed citizens by the favored social class. That's supposed to be... better, somehow?