> the way it works in Sweden, many fines are defined essentially in days wages and not in money. So the judge doesn't sentence you to pay $100k, they sentence y

> the way it works in Sweden, many fines are defined essentially in days wages and not in money. So the judge doesn't sentence you to pay $100k, they sentence you to pay 45 days wages So explain how that makes sense because it doesn't take into account the savings of the individual? If I have a million in savings and I am retired or how do you determine 'wages' with a self employed person? I am not saying there aren't ways to answer or address this. But it is not simple and not fair the way stated other than a revenue scheme for the government. If the idea is to create a disincentive that has not been done using daily wages. (Some people live hand to mouth as well so they are particularly impacted)