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Its actually according to Congress https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Federal_Arbitration_Act https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Federal_Arbitration_Act Also http://slat
by testvox 8y ago
Its actually according to Congress https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Federal_Arbitration_Act https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Federal_Arbitration_Act
Also http://slatestarcodex.com/2014/11/05/the-right-to-waive-your-rights/ http://slatestarcodex.com/2014/11/05/the-right-to-waive-your...
- makomk 8y agoAs I understand it, it's questionable whether Congress ever actually intended it to apply to state-law claims. The Supreme Court just unexpectedly interpreted the law that way 60 years after it was written. Since then, binding arbitration has proliferated and US states have effectively been unable to create any kind of consumer or employee protection that can be enforced in civil court.
- testvox 8y agoCan you provide evidence for that position? The law itself clearly mentions interstate transactions and includes directions to "any court of the United States". I also can't find a Supreme Court case matching your description. "CHAP. 218.-An Act To make valid and enforceable written provisions or agreements for arbitration of disputes arising out of contracts, maritime transactions, or commerce among the States or Territories or with foreign nations."