3 ms·

Psychotic disorders can turn sweet people into highly aggressive people. It's heartbreaking to see.

by blt 8y ago

DanBC 8y ago
It's important to say that mental illness probably doesn't increase risk of violence by much. eg, this study: https://jamanetwork.com/journals/jama/fullarticle/183929 https://jamanetwork.com/journals/jama/fullarticle/183929 > In patients with schizophrenia, 1054 (13.2%) had at least 1 violent offense compared with 4276 (5.3%) of general population controls (adjusted odds ratio [OR], 2.0; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.8-2.2). The risk was mostly confined to patients with substance abuse comorbidity (of whom 27.6% committed an offense), yielding an increased risk of violent crime among such patients (adjusted OR, 4.4; 95% CI, 3.9-5.0), whereas the risk increase was small in schizophrenia patients without substance abuse comorbidity (8.5% of whom had at least 1 violent offense; adjusted OR, 1.2; 95% CI, 1.1-1.4; P<.001 for interaction). The risk increase among those with substance abuse comorbidity was significantly less pronounced when unaffected siblings were used as controls (28.3% of those with schizophrenia had a violent offense compared with 17.9% of their unaffected siblings; adjusted OR, 1.8; 95% CI, 1.4-2.4; P<.001 for interaction), suggesting significant familial (genetic or early environmental) confounding of the association between schizophrenia and violence.
- DtnB 8y ago
  Doesn't your own link say that there is a ~2.6 times higher likelihood of violent offenses in schizophrenia compared to the General Population? Of course, it does say that the effect is significantly more pronounced with a 'substance abuse co-morbidity' but I can't seem to find the likelihood of a substance abuse co-morbidity with schizophrenia in this paper. There also does not appear to be a definition for what they define as a 'substance abuse comorbidity' Looking it up: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2669586/ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2669586/ "Schizophrenia Patients Report Consistently Higher Rates of Substance Abuse Than the General Population, Notably With Respect to 4 Licit (Nicotine and Alcohol) and Illicit (Cannabis and Cocaine) Substances" it also says this is not to be used as a baseline for studies but if Schizophrenia is commonly co-morbid with substance abuse then pointing out that mental illness doesn't increase violence by much seems like a red-herring.
  - DanBC 8y ago
    > Doesn't your own link say that there is a ~2.6 times higher likelihood of violent offenses in schizophrenia compared to the General Population? No. It tells us that people who are mentally ill are about as violent as the general population unless they also have substance abuse. > it also says this is not to be used as a baseline for studies but if Schizophrenia is commonly co-morbid with substance abuse then pointing out that mental illness doesn't increase violence by much seems like a red-herring When trying to predict risk of violence knowing that someone has schizophrenia tells you almost nothing. Knowing they have substance misuse tells you a bit more. And knowing that people with schizophrenia are not more violent than the general population means community treatment is easier to provide.
    - DtnB 8y ago
      "In patients with schizophrenia, 1054 (13.2%) had at least 1 violent offense compared with 4276 (5.3%)" thats a 2.5 difference in patients with schizophrenia compared to the general population > When trying to predict risk of violence knowing that someone has schizophrenia tells you almost nothing. Knowing they have substance misuse tells you a bit more. That is simply not true though. Substance abuse changes the rate at which it happens but Substance abuse seems to have a high comorbidity with Schizophrenia and while the rate is significantly lower when there are no substance issues it is still higher. Substance abuse, per the link you provided, creates a 3rd and fourth population subset (1: schizophrenics 2: neurotypical 3:Schizophrenics with Substance abuse 4: NT with Substance abuse) Which after your response, seems like you're being intentionally misleading in order prove your point.

Psychotic disorders can turn sweet people into highly aggressive people. It's heartbreaking to see.

by blt 8y ago

Psychotic disorders can turn sweet people into highly aggressive people. It's heartbreaking to see.

It's important to say that mental illness probably doesn't increase risk of violence by much. eg, this study: https://jamanetwork.com/journals/jama/fullarticle/183929 https://jamanetwork.com/journals/jama/fullarticle/183929 > In patients with schizophrenia, 1054 (13.2%) had at least 1 violent offense compared with 4276 (5.3%) of general population controls (adjusted odds ratio [OR], 2.0; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.8-2.2). The risk was mostly confined to patients with substance abuse comorbidity (of whom 27.6% committed an offense), yielding an increased risk of violent crime among such patients (adjusted OR, 4.4; 95% CI, 3.9-5.0), whereas the risk increase was small in schizophrenia patients without substance abuse comorbidity (8.5% of whom had at least 1 violent offense; adjusted OR, 1.2; 95% CI, 1.1-1.4; P<.001 for interaction). The risk increase among those with substance abuse comorbidity was significantly less pronounced when unaffected siblings were used as controls (28.3% of those with schizophrenia had a violent offense compared with 17.9% of their unaffected siblings; adjusted OR, 1.8; 95% CI, 1.4-2.4; P<.001 for interaction), suggesting significant familial (genetic or early environmental) confounding of the association between schizophrenia and violence.

DtnB 8y ago
Doesn't your own link say that there is a ~2.6 times higher likelihood of violent offenses in schizophrenia compared to the General Population? Of course, it does say that the effect is significantly more pronounced with a 'substance abuse co-morbidity' but I can't seem to find the likelihood of a substance abuse co-morbidity with schizophrenia in this paper. There also does not appear to be a definition for what they define as a 'substance abuse comorbidity' Looking it up: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2669586/ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2669586/ "Schizophrenia Patients Report Consistently Higher Rates of Substance Abuse Than the General Population, Notably With Respect to 4 Licit (Nicotine and Alcohol) and Illicit (Cannabis and Cocaine) Substances" it also says this is not to be used as a baseline for studies but if Schizophrenia is commonly co-morbid with substance abuse then pointing out that mental illness doesn't increase violence by much seems like a red-herring.
- DanBC 8y ago
  > Doesn't your own link say that there is a ~2.6 times higher likelihood of violent offenses in schizophrenia compared to the General Population? No. It tells us that people who are mentally ill are about as violent as the general population unless they also have substance abuse. > it also says this is not to be used as a baseline for studies but if Schizophrenia is commonly co-morbid with substance abuse then pointing out that mental illness doesn't increase violence by much seems like a red-herring When trying to predict risk of violence knowing that someone has schizophrenia tells you almost nothing. Knowing they have substance misuse tells you a bit more. And knowing that people with schizophrenia are not more violent than the general population means community treatment is easier to provide.
  - DtnB 8y ago
    "In patients with schizophrenia, 1054 (13.2%) had at least 1 violent offense compared with 4276 (5.3%)" thats a 2.5 difference in patients with schizophrenia compared to the general population > When trying to predict risk of violence knowing that someone has schizophrenia tells you almost nothing. Knowing they have substance misuse tells you a bit more. That is simply not true though. Substance abuse changes the rate at which it happens but Substance abuse seems to have a high comorbidity with Schizophrenia and while the rate is significantly lower when there are no substance issues it is still higher. Substance abuse, per the link you provided, creates a 3rd and fourth population subset (1: schizophrenics 2: neurotypical 3:Schizophrenics with Substance abuse 4: NT with Substance abuse) Which after your response, seems like you're being intentionally misleading in order prove your point.