3 ms·
>@Thilo No, it doesn't... ? If a random variable is uniformly distributed in the range (0,1), and you sample the variable n times, and take the sum, it will jus
by iskander 16y ago
>@Thilo No, it doesn't... ? If a random variable is uniformly distributed in the range (0,1), and you sample the variable n times, and take the sum, it will just be uniformly distributed in the range (0,n). – user359996 12 hours ago
It's so easy to sound certain and be wildly wrong.