Your question doesn't make sense as stated, as you're conflating two different concepts (a statute vs. the law) and being overly broad in your reference to prec

Your question doesn't make sense as stated, as you're conflating two different concepts (a statute vs. the law) and being overly broad in your reference to precedent. Congress can't pass a statute, for example, that criminalizes oral and anal sex, and expect it to somehow overrule Lawrence v. Texas. However, if the courts interpret a statute that Congress has passed in a way that Congress does not care for, Congress is free to alter the statute to be more clear.