Just no, and I don't understand what's the point in posting uneducated personal opinions here and stating them as facts. The "European dark ages" had literally

Just no, and I don't understand what's the point in posting uneducated personal opinions here and stating them as facts. The "European dark ages" had literally zero progress in algebra, it was Boethius's De arithmetica in the Quadrivium for six centuries until Fibonacci's Liber abaci introduced the hindu-arabic numbers, which he learned in what today we call Algeria. And then algebraic methods (BTW "algorithm" comes from the name of al-Khwarizmi, "algebra" comes from "al-jabr") were unknown in Europe until Robert of Chester translated Khwarizmi's "Hisab Al-jabr w'al-muqabala" to Latin from the original in Arabic. There was zero progress in algebra in Europe for six centuries because they had no algebra. After that (there was a bit of a divide between abacists and algebrists), people doing algebra in Europe used that book until the printed arithmetics/algebras of the 16th century. All of them do mention their sources: you can download them in google books and look it up.