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The proof states: "For n to be prime either x² + x + 1 = 1 or x - 1 = 1" Could somebody tell me why each of the factor components must be equal to one?
by BennyH26 8y ago
The proof states: "For n to be prime either x² + x + 1 = 1 or x - 1 = 1"
Could somebody tell me why each of the factor components must be equal to one?
- rubatuga 8y agoDefinition of a prime. Only divisible by itself and one
- gizmo686 8y agoI believe there is a typo, and it should say "for p to be prime". Since p = (x^2 + x + 1)(x - 1), and both of those factors are integers, if both factors were not 1, then we would have demonstrated a factoring of p; therefore p would be composite. If you wanted to be super formal, you would have to deal with the possibility that the factors were -1, but that is more of an uninteresting technicality.
- bwasti 8y agoah good catch on the typo, just fixed it
- amluto 8y agoThere’s another minor error. The proof states: > For $ p $ to be prime either $ x^2 + x + 1 = 1 $ or $ x - 1 = 1 $. That’s not quite true. In general, if p is prime and p=a·b for integers a and b, then at least one of a and b is 1 or -1. The rest of the proof still works since, as you say, x != 0, so x + 1 != -1.
- bwasti 8y agoI'll leave that omitted to keep things concise. I think it is quite common to assume a domain of natural numbers when talking about primes. > then at least one of a and b is 1 or -1 I think you mean exactly one of a and b is 1 or -1
- frankmcsherry 8y agoTo be pedantic, shouldn't you also need to rule out the possibility that x is a negative number? For example, x = -1 satisfies your quadratic equation, but because we are doing an odd power of x you can rule it out.
- amluto 8y agoAside from the 1 vs -1 issue, the proof finds all integers x such that p is prime. So I think it’s fine.
- amluto 8y agoYou can’t just assume a range of natural numbers in this context. You have a prime p that is equal to f(x) for some polynomial f with integer coefficients and some integer x. You observe that f(x)=a(x)b(x) where a and b are also polynomials with integer coefficients. It does not follow that a and b are non-negative. As an example, let f(x)=x^3-2x^2-3x+6. Then a(x)=x-2 and b(x)=x^2-3. Now you could try to argue that, if f(x) is prime, then one of a(x) and b(x) is 1, so x is 2 or 3, but f(2)=0 and f(3)=6, so f(x) can’t be prime for integer x. But you would be wrong, and, indeed, f(1)=2, which is prime. You really do have to consider negative factors.
- deleted 8y ago[deleted]
- BennyH26 8y agoMuch appreciated, thank you