There are 2 separate issues here: 1. The existence of the Commons Clause. 2. The application of the Commons Clause to software that previously was not subject

There are 2 separate issues here: 1. The existence of the Commons Clause. 2. The application of the Commons Clause to software that previously was not subject to it. To the original author: How would your view be different if a company released a new product or module that was Commons Clause-licensed from day 1? Would that still be a threat to open source? (What if the alternative to it being Commons Clause-licensed was that it wouldn't exist at all?)