3 ms·
> the explanation is nonsense No, it is not. You are literally applying the residue theorem [0] in a non-fancy way. You use that a lot on a signals and system
by siproprio 8y ago
> the explanation is nonsense
No, it is not.
You are literally applying the residue theorem [0] in a non-fancy way. You use that a lot on a signals and systems course to find the inverse laplace transform.
[0]: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Partial_fraction_decomposition#Residue_method https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Partial_fraction_decomposition...
- monochromatic 8y agoYou’re applying it in a non-rigorous way. Like I said, it might work, but it’s not a valid explanation of why it works.