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Note that you do not address the claim that an immoral act (the destruction of Chinese art during the Cultural Revolution) does not absolve another one (the pil
by Leary 8y ago
Note that you do not address the claim that an immoral act (the destruction of Chinese art during the Cultural Revolution) does not absolve another one (the pillaging of Chinese art by Europeans decades/centuries earlier). If scaling interpersonal ethics up to the intercultural is a common fallacy (which it's not), then you have committed the depressingly common fallacy of Argument from Fallacy [1].
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Argument_from_fallacy https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Argument_from_fallacy
- lainga 8y agoIf it is not a common fallacy, let me make an appeal to you: If I go to your house and beat you up, you have every right to call the police on me and they should be able to throw me in jail, and keep an eye on me until I've reformed my ways. However, this doesn't mean you can go to my house and start stealing all my things: just like any other immoral act, as you point out, one crime doesn't absolve another. This should apply even if you're a policeman. Accordingly, the USSR should not have seized Kaliningrad, Stettin, and Silesia. Don't you think those territories should be returned to Germany?
- qiqing 8y agoBoth of you are lumping all Chinese people together as a monolith. Let's put it this way. If you come to my house and beat me up and loot my stuff, and then burn most of my house down, but I survive, and then a mob of poor people came by and then destroyed other artifacts in my house, do the actions of the mob of poor people absolve you, the original looter? Does it complicate or simplify things if you, the original looter, also sold opium to the mob of poor people?
- i_am_nomad 8y agoAnd you're lumping Western people together in the exact same way.
- qiqing 8y agoWould you care to provide some nuance then?