3 ms·
No it doesn't. Let's define the natural numbers to start with 42. Then the left side of the sequence 42, 43, 44 being represented as 41 < x is unnatural, since
by umanwizard 8y ago
No it doesn't. Let's define the natural numbers to start with 42. Then the left side of the sequence 42, 43, 44 being represented as 41 < x is unnatural, since 41 is not a natural number.
It's clear that the author structured his essay carefully to avoid this exact assumption. He explicitly avoids considering whether the natural numbers start at 0 or at 1 until after he has chosen "a)".