4 ms·

I see now

• umanwizard 8y ago
  No it doesn't. Let's define the natural numbers to start with 42. Then the left side of the sequence 42, 43, 44 being represented as 41 < x is unnatural, since 41 is not a natural number. It's clear that the author structured his essay carefully to avoid this exact assumption. He explicitly avoids considering whether the natural numbers start at 0 or at 1 until after he has chosen "a)".