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I much prefer the definition of "racism" that has been in use since its inception, why change it?
by tothepixel 8y ago
I much prefer the definition of "racism" that has been in use since its inception, why change it?
- rosser 8y agoBecause, given the demonstrated ways racism "works" (as in, how it's practiced, and what effects it has when practiced between differentially enfranchised groups) it's not accurate?
- ankushnarula 8y ago> To insist that the "prejudice + power" argument is premised on bright-line "race == power" is to mischaracterize it to the point of being unrecognizable. Would you mind clarifying the distinction between "differentially enfranchised groups" and "race == power" ?
- rosser 8y agoBy analogy, membership in a group that is more or less enfranchised than another could be seen as a Bayesian classification, while "race == power" is more Boolean. One describes a tendency; the other asserts an identity relationship. It doesn't map perfectly, but it's close enough for the bandwidth I have to keep contributing to this thread right now.
- deleted 8y ago[deleted]
- s73v3r_ 8y agoBecause someone saying mean words about someone who looks like you is far different if they have the power to do bad things.