Do you think that if courts did not necessarily honor these contracts as binding it would help, or cause more problems than it solves? For example: if there are

Do you think that if courts did not necessarily honor these contracts as binding it would help, or cause more problems than it solves? For example: if there are server logs to show someone 'agreed' to a 5000 word T&C in under 5 seconds from presentation to acceptance, it seems unreasonable to assume they entered into that contract in good faith. In other words, do you think increasing the informed consent burden for the presenter/preparer of a contract in order for a court to veiw it as binding would help?