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Why would it have to be secured in full? He wrote “funding secured” that just implies a non-zero level of funding.
by talltimtom 8y ago
Why would it have to be secured in full? He wrote “funding secured” that just implies a non-zero level of funding.
- gamblor956 8y agoNo, it implies that all the necessary funding was secured because he didn't qualify his statement. Not announcing that they did not have full funding would have been a material omission under securities laws and would have been just as actionable legally speaking.
- londons_explore 8y agoHis claim that existing shareholders can keep their stake could mean the projected amount of funding required is very small. It could mean his personal bank account could cover it.