3 ms·
> the King had absolute or near absolute authority. King John was the ruling class. In theory, perhaps. But the barons could and did challenge the King with a
by takluyver 8y ago
> the King had absolute or near absolute authority. King John was the ruling class.
In theory, perhaps. But the barons could and did challenge the King with a degree of success. The king did not have a practical monopoly on the use of force. So the description of Magna Carta as an 'agreement among the ruling class' seems reasonable.