3 ms·
I think the distinction is really between "A given infinite set" and "every conceivable thing". It's a common fallacy to equate one infinity with any other infi
by n4r9 8y ago
I think the distinction is really between "A given infinite set" and "every conceivable thing". It's a common fallacy to equate one infinity with any other infinity, and therefore any given infinity must contain all things. This fallacy is very neatly encapsulated by the phrase
>If there are infinite numbers, and all numbers have a name, then there must exist a number called door