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It is a legitimate power if the people who form the government consented to give the government the power to write zoning laws. The real question is — when did
by ibeckermayer 8y ago
It is a legitimate power if the people who form the government consented to give the government the power to write zoning laws. The real question is — when did we consent to be governed by these dopes?
- mkempe 8y agoIn the US zoning laws are an early-20th-century creation, initially ruled unconstitutional but eventually unleashed by the Supreme Court in 1926 under the cover of police power. [1] However police power was not conceived so broadly at the time the first 13 States consented to the US Constitution (zoning regulation would have been seen as covertly taking one's property without compensation). As for elections, they are not unusual; the crux is what kind of powers are properly delegated by the electoral body to people in this local/city government? unlimited use of zoning laws for any purpose? [1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Village_of_Euclid_v._Ambler_Realty_Co https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Village_of_Euclid_v._Ambler_Re....
- cirgue 8y agoVote in local elections. If you want your voice heard, you have to take the time to speak.