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It differs from slavery, in the sense that these people are still legally people. That's not some trivial fucking difference.
by Avshalom 16y ago
It differs from slavery, in the sense that these people are still legally people.
That's not some trivial fucking difference.
- yummyfajitas 16y agoSuppose the US passed a law in 1850 saying that slaves are legally people, but no other changes were made (i.e., the legal person slaves were still forced to perform labor for their masters). Would that also be a non-trivial difference? Being defined as a legal person is nice, but it doesn't change the fact that you are forced (under threat of violence) to work for someone else against your will.