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> Didn't the British empire ban slaves and slavery on English soil at the start of the 19th century? Depends on your meaning and what dates. The British did NO
by linuxkerneldev 8y ago
> Didn't the British empire ban slaves and slavery on English soil at the start of the 19th century?
Depends on your meaning and what dates. The British did NOT ban slavery "at the start of the 19th century" (meaning 1800s). They banned only the buying of slaves using English vessels and even then it was nominally enforced. In 1833, the English compensated approximately 3000 slavers for "loss of business assets" (yes, that's right, they compensated the slavers, not the slaves) including the ancestors of David Cameron, the Bazalgettes and other wealthy families.
Almost instantly after the passing of the 1833 act, the British used indentured labour to replace slavery. Indentured labour was found to be equivalently cruel. The historical record shows death rates as high or higher than the slavery period for indentured labourers brought from South Asia to the West Indies and South East Asia. https://www.theguardian.com/commentisfree/2006/dec/12/theforgottenslavesfromindi https://www.theguardian.com/commentisfree/2006/dec/12/thefor...
- dagaci 8y ago1835 "To finance the compensation (for slave owners), the British government had to take on a £15 million loan (40% of its budget) with banker Nathan Mayer Rothschild and his brother-in-law Moses Montefiore. The money was not paid back until 2015." This is a very interesting timeline about the abololition of slavery in different places and peoples https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Timeline_of_abolition_of_slavery_and_serfdom https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Timeline_of_abolition_of_slave... i think it is also good to see things in the larger context
- nerdponx 8y agoLooks like I got two completely different answers. Any thoughts on the sibling reply? https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=17462423 https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=17462423
- zeveb 8y ago> yes, that's right, they compensated the slavers, not the slaves That seems fair: the slave-owners had undertaken obligations that by the standards, mores & laws of the time were normal, ethical & legal; changing mores & laws nullified those obligations, and hence they were compensated. You'll find that it's a lot easier to change someone's mind if you say, 'I want you to do something which is right, and I'll pay you to do it!' than if you say, 'I want you to do something which is right, and I'll punish you for doing it!' What's more important in your mind: freeing slaves or punishing slaveholders?
- grasshopperpurp 8y agoAre you sure that fair is the word you're after?
- scarejunba 8y agoOf course you compensate the slavers. You want them to buy in to the process. That way you don't have to fight a war with them over it. That's just pragmatism in politics. It's stuff like this that reveals why some organizations like the NAACP are successful and others are not.