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I don't know much about Sanskrit's history, but the linguistic similarities don't infer its influence on SE Asian languages. The influence could have gone the o

I don't know much about Sanskrit's history, but the linguistic similarities don't infer its influence on SE Asian languages. The influence could have gone the other way, from SE Asia to India (really, to South Asia; modern India's borders are a 20th century innovation, and Sanskrit seems to originate in Punjab, straddling modern India and Pakistan[0]) - and probably the influence would have gone both ways. Also, a third party could have influenced both, leaving them with similar vocabulary, and often influences are very indirect, such as Sanskrit's influence on European languages - it wasn't due to lots of Sanskrit speakers vacationing in France. [0] https://www.britannica.com/topic/Indo-Aryan-languages https://www.britannica.com/topic/Indo-Aryan-languages

boundlessdreamz 8y ago
The Tamil kings of India had great influence on SE Asia during the Chola period.(1,2) Sanskrit was certainly used in SE Asia(3). Mostly ceremonial like Latin and used only by the ruling class I think 1.https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chola_invasion_of_Srivijaya https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chola_invasion_of_Srivijaya 2. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chola_dynasty https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chola_dynasty 3. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shailendra_dynasty https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shailendra_dynasty -
ngc248 8y ago
No, the influence is from India to SE Asia. Most of the SE Asia kingdoms were hindu/buddhist kingdoms before they became islamic. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Greater_India https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Greater_India
vram22 8y ago
Check this out, as one example, in the History section: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indonesia https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indonesia >The influence could have gone the other way Can be, sure. My saying that there was influence in one direction did not rule out it happening the other way as well Good point. >often influences are very indirect, such as Sanskrit's influence on European languages - it wasn't due to lots of Sanskrit speakers vacationing in France. Sure. I did not claim that. In fact, I've read a bit about the common features of Indian and European languages, etc. - and you can detect it too, if you listen to, or read, stuff in both Indian and European languages - e.g. mater (Latin) ~ mata (Sanskrit), pater (Latin) ~ pita (Sanskrit), hundreds more words that seem to sound similar or have a common root which historians say is due to the common Proto-Indo-European roots of both, which is the topic of a descendant (but really ancestor :) link of the one you posted: https://www.britannica.com/topic/Indo-European-languages https://www.britannica.com/topic/Indo-European-languages Also see: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-European_language https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-European_language and https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-Europeans https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-Europeans Not sure how true all of that is, though. I have a healthy skepticism about historians, particularly when they cross-quote each other, and make claims about the past that almost sound like they were present there at the time :) And another reason is how the heck can they know all that they claim to, about things so long ago.
- forapurpose 8y ago
  > Not sure how true all of that is, though. I have a healthy skepticism about historians Is that supposed to be an argument against it? Have you examined the arguments and evidence, which thousands of experts have examined and been convinced by? What exactly do you object to?
  - vram22 8y ago
    > Have you examined the arguments and evidence, which thousands of experts have examined and been convinced by? Which "thousands of experts", are you referring to, exactly? Sure, there could be many thousands of "expert" historians. My point is, have you personally "examined the arguments and evidence" of those thousands of experts, who you claim have been convinced by said evidence? If not, why are you arguing on their behalf? >What exactly do you object to? I'm objecting to the fact that some of them (whose claims I have read in history or Sanskrit courses I studied in school), state things about people and events of centuries ago, as though they know for sure that those things happened in the way they claim - without providing evidence, except for their assertions, which anyone can make. That's why I have a healthy skepticism about them.
    - vram22 8y ago
      And if you are asking me if I have examined the evidence of those historians, what is your evidence for making this statement (in an earlier comment above, by you)? : >it wasn't due to lots of Sanskrit speakers vacationing in France. It may be true or false, but have you examined the evidence for it, if any? If not, how are you saying it categorically, and questioning my doing the same on another point (about historians)?
  - vram22 8y ago
    > which thousands of experts have examined Who determines that they are experts? You? If so, are you more qualified than them, so that you can determine that they are experts? Where's your evidence for being a better expert than those "thousands of experts"?

boundlessdreamz 8y ago

The Tamil kings of India had great influence on SE Asia during the Chola period.(1,2) Sanskrit was certainly used in SE Asia(3). Mostly ceremonial like Latin and used only by the ruling class I think 1.https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chola_invasion_of_Srivijaya https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chola_invasion_of_Srivijaya 2. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chola_dynasty https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chola_dynasty 3. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shailendra_dynasty https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shailendra_dynasty -

ngc248 8y ago

No, the influence is from India to SE Asia. Most of the SE Asia kingdoms were hindu/buddhist kingdoms before they became islamic. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Greater_India https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Greater_India

vram22 8y ago

Check this out, as one example, in the History section: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indonesia https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indonesia >The influence could have gone the other way Can be, sure. My saying that there was influence in one direction did not rule out it happening the other way as well Good point. >often influences are very indirect, such as Sanskrit's influence on European languages - it wasn't due to lots of Sanskrit speakers vacationing in France. Sure. I did not claim that. In fact, I've read a bit about the common features of Indian and European languages, etc. - and you can detect it too, if you listen to, or read, stuff in both Indian and European languages - e.g. mater (Latin) ~ mata (Sanskrit), pater (Latin) ~ pita (Sanskrit), hundreds more words that seem to sound similar or have a common root which historians say is due to the common Proto-Indo-European roots of both, which is the topic of a descendant (but really ancestor :) link of the one you posted: https://www.britannica.com/topic/Indo-European-languages https://www.britannica.com/topic/Indo-European-languages Also see: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-European_language https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-European_language and https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-Europeans https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-Europeans Not sure how true all of that is, though. I have a healthy skepticism about historians, particularly when they cross-quote each other, and make claims about the past that almost sound like they were present there at the time :) And another reason is how the heck can they know all that they claim to, about things so long ago.

forapurpose 8y ago
> Not sure how true all of that is, though. I have a healthy skepticism about historians Is that supposed to be an argument against it? Have you examined the arguments and evidence, which thousands of experts have examined and been convinced by? What exactly do you object to?
- vram22 8y ago
  > Have you examined the arguments and evidence, which thousands of experts have examined and been convinced by? Which "thousands of experts", are you referring to, exactly? Sure, there could be many thousands of "expert" historians. My point is, have you personally "examined the arguments and evidence" of those thousands of experts, who you claim have been convinced by said evidence? If not, why are you arguing on their behalf? >What exactly do you object to? I'm objecting to the fact that some of them (whose claims I have read in history or Sanskrit courses I studied in school), state things about people and events of centuries ago, as though they know for sure that those things happened in the way they claim - without providing evidence, except for their assertions, which anyone can make. That's why I have a healthy skepticism about them.
  - vram22 8y ago
    And if you are asking me if I have examined the evidence of those historians, what is your evidence for making this statement (in an earlier comment above, by you)? : >it wasn't due to lots of Sanskrit speakers vacationing in France. It may be true or false, but have you examined the evidence for it, if any? If not, how are you saying it categorically, and questioning my doing the same on another point (about historians)?
- vram22 8y ago
  > which thousands of experts have examined Who determines that they are experts? You? If so, are you more qualified than them, so that you can determine that they are experts? Where's your evidence for being a better expert than those "thousands of experts"?