> I think it's funny that one comment on this post says that Bose "forgot that there is an entire range of frequencies between the 'highs' and the 'lows'" and a

> I think it's funny that one comment on this post says that Bose "forgot that there is an entire range of frequencies between the 'highs' and the 'lows'" and another one that says "No highs, no lows, must be Bose." How can both be true? Have a look at the frequency response graphs and associated comments here. Both statements turn out to be true. http://www.intellexual.net/bose.html http://www.intellexual.net/bose.html