2 ms·
Wouldn't that only be true if the "unfairness" is masking discrimination of a protected class or retaliation or some other illegal behavior?
by eli 8y ago
Wouldn't that only be true if the "unfairness" is masking discrimination of a protected class or retaliation or some other illegal behavior?
- duxup 8y agoNot necessarily. You can fire people for no reason, but firing them for a reason via a process still requires it to be somewhat "fair". It is weird how that works. Granted like anything to challenge it in court you need to prove a lot, but it is still a thing. And to be clear I don't know if the boss just getting the final say as in the above example would qualify.
- inopinatus 8y agoOnce a process looks like a tribunal, the rules of natural justice must be applied.