4 ms·
In theory, yes. In practice, no. It's easier to get rich in relative terms in a country with low inequality, but it's harder to get rich in absolute terms. Rich
by mseebach 16y ago
In theory, yes. In practice, no. It's easier to get rich in relative terms in a country with low inequality, but it's harder to get rich in absolute terms. Rich people in Scandinavia barely pass for upper middle class in the US.
- deleted 16y ago[deleted]
- ubernostrum 16y agoDoes "rich" really have a useful absolute meaning? I'd argue it doesn't.