> The difference is that Chalmers recognizes that information and subjective experience are not equivalent, "recognizes" seems to assume that he's right. AFAI

> The difference is that Chalmers recognizes that information and subjective experience are not equivalent, "recognizes" seems to assume that he's right. AFAICT there's absolutely no reason a priori to think that it's true, so I think the burden of proof is on those making the claim that the subjective is somehow not just the result of physical processes -- which is what the claim seems to amount to, at least to me.