This article is confusing to me because it conflates two things I tend to keep separate in my head - the changing income inequality within one country, and the

This article is confusing to me because it conflates two things I tend to keep separate in my head - the changing income inequality within one country, and the income inequality of the entire world, mixed together. Within a nation you can measure and track inequality with something like the GINI coefficient, and for nations like the US, inequality has worsened over time. Within the world, we've seen massive improvements over time (at least that was my impression reading Hans Rosling) and it seems rather inexorable that globalization will make it improve even more over time. I'm guessing the problem there is like how "privilege can make greater equality feel like oppression" - if the levels continue to normalize over time, then the richer countries will get (relatively) poorer. But if the richer countries have higher inequality, then that burden will be mostly felt by the richer countries' poor.