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I am not sure whether I really understand what the author argues for, probably because I read the paper in a rush. Does he argue that [the choice of] a logic is

I am not sure whether I really understand what the author argues for, probably because I read the paper in a rush. Does he argue that [the choice of] a logic is in some sense equivalent to [a choice of] what kind of entities exist? If that is indeed the case, I would tend to disagree. While we often think of logic as a provider of undisputable truth, I am not sure that this is justified. There is more than one type of logic and they lead to different conclusions or contradict each other in the general case. Therefore it seems to me that the obvious thing to say is that logic is a human construct we use to reason about the world, it does not reflect universal truths but was invented and constructed in a way to be useful to deal with our world. In consequence it is obviously very likely that logic and metaphysics are strongly correlated, but that would hardly be any deep insight but just a consequence of the way we constructed or choose the logic we use. If the logic I use to deal with the world makes a prediction about the world, for example the existence of a certain entity, then that entity might actually exist if may logic is a good match for the world, but I see no reason why the entity would have to exists, my logic could just be a bad choice.

jjaredsimpson 8y ago
What I took away: If you want to say 'Santa Claus doesn't exist', you can't write a formula ~E x. x=Santa Claus. Because then you are conceding in your logic that some object Santa Claus exists. So there is some connection between the structure of sentences we can construct in our logic and metaphysical claims. We should then try to understand differences in metaphysical claims by finding differences in logics. The author then tries to show this for the metaphysical claim, 'Statements are true or false independent of whether they can be verified.' Instead of arguing about what is truth, what does it mean for a proposition to be verified. We can instead as about the differences in the logic. Because to even talk about truth and existence we need a logic first. So don't think there is a claim that choice of logic forces claims about real world existence. I think is the more subtle connection, that choice of logic forces a choice about rules of inference. Real world claims would need to be based on introducing propositions (which are independent of the logic?) and then using rules of inference (which are dependent on the logic).
- ethn 8y ago
  The platonic "Santa Claus" does exist, so it's completely valid. The statement "Santa Claus doesn't exist" is stating there is no judgement from experience which adheres to the concept of Santa Claus.
  - danbruc 8y ago
    The platonic "Santa Claus" does exist, so it's completely valid. Most if not all people would would certainly agree that the idea or concept of »Santa Claus« exists in some way. But when you qualify it with »Platonic« you are implying - intentionally or not - a quite specific view about the nature of abstract objects and that will decrease the number of people agreeing with this statement substantially.
    - omon 8y ago
      Not really it's a common noun, which just means non-physical objects which exist in some way, even if Nominalist. You're confusing platonic with Platonic realism which are different things. But perhaps he should edit it to be more clear if the mistake is quite common, albeit perhaps meaning espoused by capitalization has been forgotten.
      - danbruc 8y ago
        In German we do not have that distinction between the different capitalizations, at least not that I am aware of, and the usage of platonic is probably essentially limited to platonic love and relationships. Something learned about the subtleties of the English language.
        mcbits 8y ago
        We don't have that distinction in English, either. Words derived from names just tend to lose their capitalization over time and may gradually be diluted in meaning as people use them without understanding their origin.

jjaredsimpson 8y ago

What I took away: If you want to say 'Santa Claus doesn't exist', you can't write a formula ~E x. x=Santa Claus. Because then you are conceding in your logic that some object Santa Claus exists. So there is some connection between the structure of sentences we can construct in our logic and metaphysical claims. We should then try to understand differences in metaphysical claims by finding differences in logics. The author then tries to show this for the metaphysical claim, 'Statements are true or false independent of whether they can be verified.' Instead of arguing about what is truth, what does it mean for a proposition to be verified. We can instead as about the differences in the logic. Because to even talk about truth and existence we need a logic first. So don't think there is a claim that choice of logic forces claims about real world existence. I think is the more subtle connection, that choice of logic forces a choice about rules of inference. Real world claims would need to be based on introducing propositions (which are independent of the logic?) and then using rules of inference (which are dependent on the logic).

ethn 8y ago
The platonic "Santa Claus" does exist, so it's completely valid. The statement "Santa Claus doesn't exist" is stating there is no judgement from experience which adheres to the concept of Santa Claus.
- danbruc 8y ago
  The platonic "Santa Claus" does exist, so it's completely valid. Most if not all people would would certainly agree that the idea or concept of »Santa Claus« exists in some way. But when you qualify it with »Platonic« you are implying - intentionally or not - a quite specific view about the nature of abstract objects and that will decrease the number of people agreeing with this statement substantially.
  - omon 8y ago
    Not really it's a common noun, which just means non-physical objects which exist in some way, even if Nominalist. You're confusing platonic with Platonic realism which are different things. But perhaps he should edit it to be more clear if the mistake is quite common, albeit perhaps meaning espoused by capitalization has been forgotten.
    - danbruc 8y ago
      In German we do not have that distinction between the different capitalizations, at least not that I am aware of, and the usage of platonic is probably essentially limited to platonic love and relationships. Something learned about the subtleties of the English language.
      - mcbits 8y ago
        We don't have that distinction in English, either. Words derived from names just tend to lose their capitalization over time and may gradually be diluted in meaning as people use them without understanding their origin.